Practice: Perspectives in Development (Part 2)
Knowledge Check: Social, Emotional, Moral & Language Development
Topic 1: Social Development
Q1: Which of the following is considered the ‘Primary Agency’ of socialization for a child?
A) School
B) Mass Media
C) Family
D) Peer Group
Q2: According to Erik Erikson, the psychosocial crisis faced by school-going children (6-12 years) is:
A) Trust vs. Mistrust
B) Initiative vs. Guilt
C) Industry vs. Inferiority
D) Identity vs. Role Confusion
Q3: “Anticipatory Socialization” refers to:
A) Learning the culture of a group one aspires to join
B) Re-learning values in old age
C) Learning from history books
D) Arguing with parents
Q4: Which parenting style is associated with the highest level of social competence and self-discipline in children?
A) Authoritarian
B) Permissive
C) Authoritative (Democratic)
D) Neglectful
Q5: In the context of social development, “Gang Age” refers to which developmental period?
A) Infancy
B) Early Childhood
C) Late Childhood
D) Adolescence
Q6: Bullying in schools is best managed by:
A) Ignoring the victim
B) Punishing the bully physically
C) Creating a whole-school culture of respect and empathy
D) Expelling all students involved
Q7: Competition in the classroom can be negative if it leads to:
A) Improved performance
B) Anxiety and damage to self-esteem of low achievers
C) Team spirit
D) Setting higher goals
Q8: The process by which children learn to negotiate differences and resolve conflict is most actively practiced during:
A) Solo study
B) Watching TV
C) Peer play and group games
D) Sleeping
Q9: Which of the following is a “Secondary Agent” of socialization?
A) Immediate Family
B) School
C) Mother
D) Siblings
Q10: “Solitary Play” where a child plays alone without noticing others is characteristic of:
A) Adolescence
B) Late Childhood
C) Infancy/Early Toddlerhood
D) Adult life
Topic 2: Emotional Development
Q11: According to Katherine Bridges’ chart, which is the first emotion to appear in a newborn?
A) Fear
B) Delight
C) General Excitement
D) Anger
Q12: Emotional Intelligence (EQ) is defined by Daniel Goleman as the ability to:
A) Score high in math
B) Suppress all feelings
C) Recognize, understand, and manage one’s own and others’ emotions
D) Memorize facts
Q13: Which of the following is considered a “complex” or “self-conscious” emotion?
A) Fear
B) Joy
C) Shame/Guilt
D) Sadness
Q14: Emotional Catharsis refers to:
A) Hiding emotions
B) Emotional release to relieve stress
C) Lack of emotions
D) Emotional immaturity
Q15: What is the primary cause of emotional instability in adolescence?
A) Hormonal changes and social pressure
B) Poor diet
C) Lack of sleep only
D) Too much homework
Q16: McDougall associated 14 basic instincts with 14 corresponding:
A) Intelligence levels
B) Emotions
C) Colors
D) Muscle movements
Q17: Emotional maturity is best demonstrated by:
A) Never getting angry
B) Expressing emotions in a socially desirable and controlled manner
C) Crying loudly whenever sad
D) Ignoring problems
Q18: How can a teacher best help a child with high anxiety?
A) Publicly scolding them
B) Providing a non-threatening, supportive environment
C) Giving difficult tests
D) Ignoring the child
Q19: Which part of the brain is primarily responsible for processing emotions like fear?
A) Cerebellum
B) Amygdala
C) Occipital Lobe
D) Spinal Cord
Q20: The “Marshmallow Test” by Walter Mischel studied which aspect of emotional development?
A) Anger management
B) Delayed gratification (Self-Control)
C) Love and belonging
D) Fear of food
Topic 3: Language Development
Q21: Noam Chomsky proposed that children are born with:
A) A blank slate (Tabula Rasa)
B) A Language Acquisition Device (LAD)
C) Perfect grammar skills
D) No ability to learn language
Q22: B.F. Skinner believed that language is learned through:
A) Innate structures
B) Operant Conditioning (Reinforcement and Imitation)
C) Cognitive maturation
D) Social interaction only
Q23: Albert Bandura’s Social Learning Theory emphasizes language learning through:
A) Genetic coding
B) Modeling and Observation
C) Punishment
D) Reading books
Q24: “Telegraphic Speech” (e.g., “Daddy go”) typically appears at what age?
A) 2-3 months
B) 6-12 months
C) 18-24 months
D) 5 years
Q25: The smallest unit of meaning in a language is called a:
A) Phoneme
B) Morpheme
C) Syntax
D) Syllable
Q26: “Babbling” (e.g., da-da-da) is a stage of speech development occurring around:
A) Birth
B) 6-10 months
C) 2 years
D) 5 years
Q27: Vygotsky’s concept of “Private Speech” refers to:
A) Whispering secrets
B) Children talking to themselves to guide their actions
C) Silent reading
D) Speech disorders
Q28: The “Whorfian Hypothesis” (Linguistic Relativity) suggests that:
A) Language determines thought
B) Thought determines language
C) Language and thought are unrelated
D) Animals have language
Q29: “Over-regularization” is a common error where children:
A) Speak too fast
B) Apply grammatical rules to irregular words (e.g., “goed” instead of “went”)
C) Forget words
D) Refuse to speak
Q30: Syntax refers to:
A) The sound system
B) The vocabulary
C) The rules for arranging words into sentences (Grammar)
D) The meaning of words
Topic 4: Moral Development
Q31: In Lawrence Kohlberg’s theory, the “Pre-conventional Level” of morality is based on:
A) Social approval
B) Punishment and Obedience / Personal Gain
C) Universal ethical principles
D) Law and Order
Q32: The “Heinz Dilemma” was used by Kohlberg to assess:
A) Emotional stability
B) Moral Reasoning
C) Intelligence
D) Memory
Q33: Carol Gilligan criticized Kohlberg’s theory for being:
A) Too simple
B) Biased against women (Gender Bias)
C) Only for Americans
D) Biased against children
Q34: Jean Piaget’s stage of “Heteronomous Morality” (Moral Realism) is characterized by:
A) Flexible rules
B) Rules are unchangeable and come from authority
C) Self-chosen principles
D) No rules
Q35: “Good Boy – Good Girl” orientation is part of which Kohlberg level?
A) Pre-conventional
B) Conventional
C) Post-conventional
D) Meta-conventional
Q36: Turiel’s Domain Theory distinguishes between Moral rules and:
A) Legal rules
B) Social Conventions
C) Mathematics
D) Sports rules
Q37: At the “Post-conventional Level”, morality is defined by:
A) Fear of police
B) Social Consensus
C) Abstract universal ethical principles of justice and rights
D) Parents’ orders
Q38: Cultural variations in moral reasoning often contrast Individualistic rights with:
A) Financial gain
B) Collectivistic duties and community welfare
C) Technological progress
D) Military power
Q39: Piaget’s stage of “Autonomous Morality” usually develops around age:
A) 2-4 years
B) 5-7 years
C) 10 years and older
D) 18 years
Q40: The “Law and Order” orientation (maintaining social order) is typical of:
A) Toddlers
B) Most adults in society (Stage 4)
C) Philosophers only
D) Animals
Topic 5: Play and Development
Q41: Mildred Parten classified play based on:
A) Types of toys used
B) Social interaction levels
C) Duration of play
D) Place of play
Q42: “Parallel Play” is characterized by children:
A) Playing together with rules
B) Playing side-by-side with similar toys but not interacting
C) Playing alone in different rooms
D) Fighting over toys
Q43: According to Herbert Spencer’s “Surplus Energy Theory”, children play because:
A) They need to practice adult roles
B) They have excess energy that needs to be released
C) They are bored
D) They want to relax
Q44: “Symbolic Play” or “Pretend Play” (e.g., using a banana as a phone) indicates the development of:
A) Physical strength
B) Abstract thinking and representation
C) Vision problems
D) Hearing ability
Q45: “Cooperative Play” involves:
A) No interaction
B) Organized activity with common goals and rules
C) Watching others play
D) Random movement
Q46: Which type of play is most constructive for developing fine motor skills?
A) Running races
B) Building with blocks or Clay modeling
C) Watching cartoons
D) Singing
Q47: Vygotsky viewed play as a “Zone of Proximal Development” (ZPD) because:
A) Play is easy
B) In play, children often behave beyond their average age/daily behavior
C) Play wastes time
D) Teachers don’t need to help
Q48: Karl Groos’s “Practice Theory” (or Preparation Theory) suggests play is for:
A) Releasing anger
B) Practicing instincts needed for adult survival
C) Reducing anxiety
D) Physical exhaustion
Q49: Games with Rules (e.g., Cricket, Hide and Seek) teach children mainly about:
A) Color recognition
B) Adherence to structure and fairness
C) Solo performance
D) Imagination only
Q50: “Associative Play” differs from “Cooperative Play” because in Associative Play:
A) Children play alone
B) Children interact and share but lack a common goal or organization
C) There are strict rules
D) No toys are used
Topic 6: A Sense of Self
Q51: “Self-Concept” refers to:
A) How much one likes oneself
B) The cognitive set of beliefs about who one is
C) Selfishness
D) Physical appearance only
Q52: Charles Cooley’s concept of “The Looking Glass Self” implies that:
A) We need mirrors to see ourselves
B) Our self-image is shaped by how we believe others see us
C) We should ignore others
D) Personality is genetic
Q53: The “Rouge Test” (Mirror Test) is used to assess:
A) Visual acuity
B) Self-Recognition
C) Makeup skills
D) Language
Q54: Carl Rogers argued that for a healthy self, there must be congruence between:
A) The Real Self and the Ideal Self
B) The Parent and the Child
C) Home and School
D) Past and Future
Q55: “Self-Esteem” is best defined as:
A) Facts about oneself
B) The overall value or worth a person places on themselves
C) Being arrogant
D) Knowing one’s name
Q56: “Social Comparison Theory” (Festinger) suggests that children evaluate their own abilities by:
A) Asking teachers
B) Comparing themselves to others (peers)
C) Taking exams
D) Meditating
Q57: “Internalization” refers to the process of:
A) Eating food
B) Making external social values part of one’s own internal belief system
C) Staying indoors
D) Memorizing answers
Q58: Self-control or “Self-Regulation” is most strongly linked to the development of which brain area?
A) Brain stem
B) Prefrontal Cortex
C) Cerebellum
D) Hippocampus
Q59: In George Herbert Mead’s theory, the “Me” represents:
A) The biological self
B) The socialized aspect of the self (internalized societal attitudes)
C) The spontaneous self
D) The animal instinct
Q60: A child describing themselves as “I have brown eyes and I can run fast” is using:
A) Psychological self-description
B) Physical/Active self-description
C) Abstract self-description
D) Future self-description